Posted by sarah on Saturday, February 9, 2008 at 5:34pm.
how would you do this improper integral
1/(x1)
from 0 to 2
this is improper at one, so I split it up into two integrals
ln(x1) from 01 and
ln(x1) from 12
I then did for the first one the (lim t>1() of ln(t1))(ln(01))
and then the same thing for the second part
I didn't know if this was right though, or what the answer would be

calculus  drwls, Sunday, February 10, 2008 at 10:56am
You used a correct procedure, but both integrals you broke it up into involve the log of zero or a negative number, both of which are "improper". I don't see how one can get a finite integral this way.
Here is another way that might work:
Define the integral of the sum of two limits. One is the integral from 0 to 1a and the other is the integral from 1+a to 2, as value of a goes to zero. Consider a as always positive. You may find that two two terms always cancel each other whatever a is, so that the limit will be zero.
Answer This Question
Related Questions
 calculus  how would you do this improper integral 1/(x1) from 0 to 2 this is ...
 calc  how would you do this improper integral 1/(x1) from 0 to 2 this is ...
 Calculus  integral oo, oo [(2x)/(x^2+1)^2] dx (a) state why the integral is ...
 Calculus  What is the connection between improper integrals, Riemann sums, and ...
 calculus  1. integral oo, oo [(2x)/(x^2+1)^2] dx 2. integral 0, pi/2 cot(theta...
 improper integral  can any one explain how to evaluate this improper integral i...
 calculus  There are four integrals: 1) definite integral x/(1+x^4)dx b/w ...
 calculus  There are four integrals: 1) definite integral x/(1+x^4)dx b/w ...
 Calculus (improper integrals)  the integral from 0 to lnx of lnx/(x^1/2) thanks...
 Calculus  I have two questions, because I'm preparing for a math test on monday...
More Related Questions