Posted by sammy on Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 6:01pm.
do you know why anything to the zero power is one????
thanks in advance

math (very easy )  Damon, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 6:08pm
Look below to the question from Usher

math (very easy )  tchrwill, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 7:07pm
From the second law of exponents, a^m/a^n = a^(mn). If m=n we have
a^n/a^n = a(nn) = a^0. But a^n/a^n = 1. Since quantities that are equal to the same quantity are equal to each other, it follows that a^0 = 1. In words, any quantity (except zero) with a zero exponent must have a numerical value equal to 1.

math (very easy )  mktintin, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 7:15pm
i don't know what is your level in maths..
so you can write x^a/x^a=1
but,in fact,it's wring because it's not defined for x=0
so your answer is right but in high school it's wrong...
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