Posted by **sammy** on Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 6:01pm.

do you know why anything to the zero power is one????

thanks in advance

- math (very easy ) -
**Damon**, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 6:08pm
Look below to the question from Usher

- math (very easy ) -
**tchrwill**, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 7:07pm
From the second law of exponents, a^m/a^n = a^(m-n). If m=n we have

a^n/a^n = a(n-n) = a^0. But a^n/a^n = 1. Since quantities that are equal to the same quantity are equal to each other, it follows that a^0 = 1. In words, any quantity (except zero) with a zero exponent must have a numerical value equal to 1.

- math (very easy ) -
**mk-tintin**, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 7:15pm
i don't know what is your level in maths..

so you can write x^a/x^a=1

but,in fact,it's wring because it's not defined for x=0

so your answer is right but in high school it's wrong...

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