Posted by **sammy** on Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 6:01pm.

do you know why anything to the zero power is one????

thanks in advance

- math (very easy ) -
**Damon**, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 6:08pm
Look below to the question from Usher

- math (very easy ) -
**tchrwill**, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 7:07pm
From the second law of exponents, a^m/a^n = a^(m-n). If m=n we have

a^n/a^n = a(n-n) = a^0. But a^n/a^n = 1. Since quantities that are equal to the same quantity are equal to each other, it follows that a^0 = 1. In words, any quantity (except zero) with a zero exponent must have a numerical value equal to 1.

- math (very easy ) -
**mk-tintin**, Tuesday, January 22, 2008 at 7:15pm
i don't know what is your level in maths..

so you can write x^a/x^a=1

but,in fact,it's wring because it's not defined for x=0

so your answer is right but in high school it's wrong...

## Answer this Question

## Related Questions

- math - why is anything to to zero power equal to one?
- math - why is anything to the zero power equal to 1?
- math - how do i solve the following: 6 X 10 to the power of one + 5 X 10 to the ...
- Math help 2 - And this one is troubling me. 3x^0 - 2(x - 3^0) - |-11 - 2| = 4x(2...
- dividing monomials - i dont know what to do when their is a smaller number on ...
- math - 5x^-1/-y^-1 once again, what are you asking? how is this simplified -y/5x...
- math (extra credit)! - my teacher asked me why a number to the zero power is ...
- ALGEBRA - Can anyone explain this in 50 words why the equation turns out like it...
- Physics or math (very simple terminology question) - "Describe the ...
- math - How do I use the quotient of powers property to show that zero to the ...