Thursday

October 2, 2014

October 2, 2014

Posted by **Hannah** on Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 12:18am.

I know this has to do with conditional probability, like "What is the probability that the second and third cards picked are aces given that the first card picked is definitely an ace".

What I did was just multiply (3/51) x (2/50). Is this correct?

- Probability -
**Im Not So Smart**, Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 2:19amNo. You would multiply 1/52 by 1/51 by 1/50. This is because the first time you picked 1 card out of 52. Next you picked 1 card out of 51. Next you picked 1 card out of 50. So you multiply all three fractions and get. 1/132600. This is probably not true, but, as my name says, Im Not So Smart.

- Probability -
**economyst**, Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 8:47amHannah. I believe you are correct. The answer by Im Not So Smart is clearly wrong.

**Answer this Question**

**Related Questions**

Math - Two cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a standard ...

Math - Two cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a standard ...

Math - Two cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a standard ...

math - Two cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a standard ...

probability - two cards are drawn from a standard deck of cards, with ...

Math - Two cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a standard ...

math - help please - Assume that 2 cards are drawn in succession and without ...

probability - two cards are drawn in succession without replacement from a ...

Math - Two cards are drawn without replacement from an ordinary deck of 52 ...

probability/math - Three cards are drawn without replacement from an ordinary ...