Posted by **Hannah** on Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 12:18am.

Three cards are drawn in succession (without replacement) from a 52-card deck. Find the probability that: If the first is an ace, then the other two are aces.

I know this has to do with conditional probability, like "What is the probability that the second and third cards picked are aces given that the first card picked is definitely an ace".

What I did was just multiply (3/51) x (2/50). Is this correct?

- Probability -
**Im Not So Smart**, Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 2:19am
No. You would multiply 1/52 by 1/51 by 1/50. This is because the first time you picked 1 card out of 52. Next you picked 1 card out of 51. Next you picked 1 card out of 50. So you multiply all three fractions and get. 1/132600. This is probably not true, but, as my name says, Im Not So Smart.

- Probability -
**economyst**, Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 8:47am
Hannah. I believe you are correct. The answer by Im Not So Smart is clearly wrong.

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