Posted by Hannah on Tuesday, November 27, 2007 at 12:18am.
No. You would multiply 1/52 by 1/51 by 1/50. This is because the first time you picked 1 card out of 52. Next you picked 1 card out of 51. Next you picked 1 card out of 50. So you multiply all three fractions and get. 1/132600. This is probably not true, but, as my name says, Im Not So Smart.
Hannah. I believe you are correct. The answer by Im Not So Smart is clearly wrong.
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