Posted by Anonymous on Saturday, November 24, 2007 at 4:48pm.
Should this be...
sin^2x - 1 = cos^2x ??
Your equation has two equal signs.
Yeah it should be, sorry for the typo
Hmm... that's tricky. I solved it one way (similar to your method), and it didn't work. Anyway, this works...
(1) Subtract the cos^2(x) from both sides.
(2) Substitute "1 - sin^2(x)" in for cos^2(x). That comes from the #1 Identity: sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1.
(3) Simplify and factor.
You should get the right answer that way. Let me know if you run into any problems.
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