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Posted by on Thursday, November 8, 2007 at 12:45am.

If a perfectly elastic colision between two objects, do both objects have the same kinetic energy after the collision?

  • physics - , Thursday, November 8, 2007 at 2:41am

    The TOTAL kinetic energy, before and after, has to be the same in an elastic collsion. Does that mean the two objects have to have the same KE? If so, why?

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