Posted by Anonymous on Tuesday, November 6, 2007 at 10:46pm.
Hummm, I do not agree with your answers a-d.
a) given that a diamond was turned, it must have been an ace or king. So for a) I get 1/2.
b) given that a club was turned, it must have been a king. So for b) I get a zero probability.
Now then, notationally, does P(A/C) mean probability of an Ace given a club was turned. If so, P(A/C)=0, and P(C/A)=0
how is that so when there are five cards faced down?
I get it. nevermind.
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