Saturday
March 28, 2015

Homework Help: Calculus

Posted by charlie on Saturday, September 15, 2007 at 7:52am.

If I have a function f(x), and am given its derivative, f'(x): may I take it as a given that f(x) is an integral of f'(x).

My reasoning is that 'undoing' the derivative gives me the derivative.

Eg is 1/3x^3 an integral of x^2?

Thanks.

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