Posted by eric on .
can somebody please help me with this question . Is this statement logical?
"Many people have said no one will ever travel to Mars. They're right! After all, we have never done it before
Do you think it's logical and correct to assume that because "we've never done it before" then "no one will ever ..."?
There are two verb tenses there -- past and future. That's part of the problem.
is it logical or not i don't get it
Was it "logical" for someone to say that no one would ever fly in 1900? Up until 1903 no one had ever flown a motorized plane.
Was it "logical" for someone to say in 1950 that no one would ever walk on the moon? Up until 1969, no one had ever been to the moon.
Is it logical to say that no one will ever travel to Mars, just because no one has done it before? What do you think?