Posted by **jasmine20** on Saturday, April 14, 2007 at 11:33pm.

how can i rewrite the following inequality in the form y = mx + b

f(x) > x

you can't change an inequality into an equality.

were you thinking something like f(x) > 1x + 0 ??

no this is how its written in my homework that's why i am confused .

- math, algebra -
**Anonymous**, Friday, November 11, 2016 at 10:20am
5x-6<14

## Answer This Question

## Related Questions

- Algebra - 1. Why does the inequality sign change when both sides of the ...
- Algebra - 1. Why does the inequality sign change when both sides of the ...
- Math - Responding back as requested: This is all I was provided Solve the ...
- math,correction - Number problems. You have at least $30 in change in your ...
- algebra - Why does the inequality sign change when both sides are multiplied or ...
- algebra - Why does the inequality sign change when both sides are multiplied or ...
- algebra 1 - Inequality 3 | 2x-2 | +16<58 â€¢simplify as much as possible ...
- math - Why does the inequality sign change when both sides are multiplied or ...
- Algebra 2(check) cont.. - 1)solve the inequality -3(r-11)+15>_9 my answer = r...
- algebra - Solve the inequality, -3x - 2 < 5. Write the solution as an ...

More Related Questions