Sunday
April 20, 2014

Homework Help: Pre-Calc

Posted by Belinda on Sunday, January 21, 2007 at 5:58pm.

Does y=1/x have an inverse? It is a one-to-one function, so it should be the inverse equation is the same???

yes, the inverse is the same.

Check it with G(f(x))

So, when drawing the inverse, it is just the same graph?

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