Tuesday

March 31, 2015

March 31, 2015

Posted by **teamcaridee** on Sunday, October 22, 2006 at 6:33pm.

It's as the lim-->infinity

(x+sinx)/(x+cosx)

We know the answer is 1 because it's in the back of the book but do not know how to get that answer. Yeah he ticks me off with not knowing his own material but can anyone help me?

- calculus -
**54305**, Tuesday, October 22, 2013 at 5:12pmSin(x) and cos(x) are periodic functions, and the value of these function have the range of 0 to 1. The result of x+(these function) will mainly be the value of x itself.

As x approaches infinity, the effect of sin(x) and cos(x) will become smaller and smaller.

Therefore, the limit of (x+sinx)/(x+cosx) will approach one.

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