Sunday

April 20, 2014

April 20, 2014

Posted by **jessica =]** on Tuesday, October 3, 2006 at 7:52pm.

1) given: angle 1 is congruent to angle 2

conlusion: the measurement of angle 1 is equal to the measuremnt of angle 2.

what is the reason for the conclusion?????/?

plzzz i need help like a lot

Two angles are not congruent unless their "measures" (number of degrees) are equal.

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